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1 Thessalonians 4:13-5:11It is believed that 1 Thessalonians was written by Paul around 52 AD. Therefore, some may argue that due to the early date, and the fact that some believe the gospels were written at a later date, then Paul could not be quoting Jesus. According to CARM, "it is generally believed that Matthew was written before A.D. 70 and as early as A.D. 50."1Even if the gospels were not written until after 1 Thessalonians, there would still have been a strong oral teaching. Additionally, as CARM points out, there is a consensus that even if the gospels had a later date there was probably what they refer to as a Q Gospel (also called Q source or Q document), that essentially contained a comprehensive account of what Jesus did and said during His first coming and was the reference text used by the gospel writers. It is also confirmed by Luke in compiling his gospel that he drew on the eyewitness accounts that were probably written down. Luke 1:1-2 ESVWhatever the case may be, when you look at the Greek, it is clear that Paul is referencing Jesus' Olivet Discourse as well as some other things Jesus stated about His return. First Thessalonians 4:15 starts by stating, "For this we declare to you by a word from the Lord" (ESV). The Greek phrase in verse 15 ἐν λόγῳ Κυρίου would be literally translated, "in the speech (or word) of the Lord." Basically Paul is saying, in the Lord's own words. In other words, Paul was saying the equivalent of what we say in English, "To quote Jesus." And that is exactly what is found. If you look at it in the Greek the whole passage is basically one giant quotation of Jesus. Here are some close parallels found in the New Testament: Matthew 22:15 ESV Luke 3:4 ESV John 8:31 ESVIt is argued by some that the living being raptured basically at the same time the dead are resurrected was not taught by Jesus. That is just not true at all. Matthew 24:31 ESVIf you read Zechariah 6, it is made clear that the four winds of heaven is the earth. Therefore, in Matthew 24:31 Jesus is saying that those whom he gathers are the elect who are currently alive and living on the earth. In John 6, over and over again Jesus stated he would raise all believers. He never specified dead or living believers. "For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life, and I Myself will raise him up on the last day" (John 6:40 NASB). Martha understood this to mean dead Saints as well as the living when she states (about Lazarus who had died), "I know that he will rise again in the resurrection on the last day" (John 11:24). Looking at the Olivet Discourse we see the state of affairs of those who are living, not dead! Matthew 24:40, 42 ESV Matthew 25:10 ESVPaul in 1 Thessalonians 4 was not trying to prove that the living would rise in the rapture. They already understood this. What they didn't understand is that the dead would raise with them. 1 Thessalonians 4:13-14 ESVThere is no where in scripture that says Paul was teaching something that was only revealed to him. Multiple times Paul talks about divine revelation from God and he uses the word ἀποκάλυψις (apokalypsis). Several times he speaks directly about how he received divine revelation (apokalypsis) about the gospel of Christ. However, never once does he mention specifically that he received divine revelation (apokalypsis) regarding the rapture or coming of Jesus. Fact: the Greek words λόγος (logos) and ἀποκάλυψις (apokalypsis) never appear together in the same verse in the New Testament! Ever! A perfect example is 2 Corinthians 12:1, where Paul talks about receiving "revelations of the Lord" ἀποκαλύψεις Κυρίου. He never uses λόγος (logos) in this passage, and specifically states it was divine revelation by using ἀποκάλυψις (apokalypsis). Ephesians 3:3-6 is another perfect example. Paul in speaking of the gospel of Christ says that it was ἀποκάλυψιν ἐγνωρίσθη μοι "made known to me by revelation." He specifically states it was made by revelation ἀποκάλυψις (apokalypsis), and once again never uses the word λόγος (logos). Galatians 1:11-12 NASBPaul said that he received the doctrine of the gospel through direct revelation from Jesus Christ. Some assume that everything Paul taught was based on a divine revelation from Jesus Christ. This may be a stretch. Obviously, wherever he didn't have a divine revelation from Jesus the Holy Spirit would have led Him since all scripture is inspired by God. Even if Paul received the doctrine of the rapture as a direct divine revelation from Jesus, it does not prove that he wasn't quoting the Olivet Discourse. Obviously, Jesus or the Holy Spirit could have revealed to Paul the exact words Jesus spoke in the Olivet Discourse. In his epistles, Paul obviously quoted words Jesus stated during His first coming. For instance, he quotes Jesus in what he said when he instituted communion (cf., 1 Corinthians 11:25-26). In his communion discourse Paul indicates he is quoting Jesus with the Greek word λέγων (logos), which is the same word used by Paul in 1 Thessalonians 4:15 before starting his discourse on the rapture. Obviously it cannot be dogmatically stated either way whether he taught the rapture based on divine revelation or by merely quoting what Jesus stated in the gospels. However, to say it is based on divine revelation must be asserted based on pure conjecture, since there is zero evidence of this in the New Testament. In the Old Testament you will also find the phrase ἐν λόγῳ κυρίου. In 2 Chronicles 30:12, it is clear that the reference was in quoting what was written in the Law. The ESV states that the king and the princes were merely informing the people what was commanded in "the word of the Lord." This same phrase also appears in 1 Kings 13:1, 2, 5, 32, and 20:35. Here a prophet is merely quoting what the Lord said to that prophet. This is clear based on 13:2 which states, "thus says the LORD" (ESV). The prophet received this based on divine revelation, by the Lord speaking to that prophet, and then the prophet quoted verbatim the words spoken by the Lord. Therefore, all occurrences of the Greek phrase ἐν λόγῳ κυρίου are quotations. The fact that some were received by divine revelation, and others from reading the law does not detract from the fact that all are quotations. Since all examples are quotations, it is only a mater of determining whether there is evidence that Paul was quoting things Jesus said during His first coming or if these are quotations after the fact, similar to the book of Revelation. Jesus taught a coming at the end of the tribulation and never spoke specifically about a coming before the tribulation. This puts the burden of proof on pretribulationists to prove this chronology. However, not one passage in scripture shows a chronology of the rapture occurring before the tribulation. Paul uses only seventeen verses to describe details on the rapture. He was not explaining a new doctrine; he was merely clarifying what Jesus had already taught. If this were some new doctrine, Paul would have spent more time on the topic. Two whole chapters in Matthew are devoted to Jesus' explanation in the Olivet Discourse. In this article I will go verse by verse and show that Paul was merely re-quoting what Jesus had already taught.
Revelation 19:14 NASB Jude 1:14-15 NASB 1 Thessalonians 3:13 NASB Zechariah 14:5 NASB Deuteronomy 33:2 NASB John 11:25 NASB John 6:40 NASBWhat was Paul's hope? His hope was that there would be a resurrection of the righteous. He wasn't teaching a new doctrine. He was simply explaining to the Thessalonians what that doctrine entailed. Acts 24:15 NASB
The greek of verse 15 εἰς τὴν παρουσίαν [parousia] τοῦ Κυρίου translated "until the arrival [parousia] of the Lord." Parousia is a noun, not a verb. If this is a formal title of an event, then "the coming" is a proper translation. However, if this is not a title, then arrival is more accurate. Paul using the word parousia would be familiar to the early Christians because this is the same wording used elsewhere. Matthew 24:3 NASBThis same language is repeated by Jesus in Matthew 24:27, 37 & 39 ἡ παρουσία [parousia] τοῦ Υἱοῦ τοῦ ἀνθρώπου "the coming of the Son of Man." Paul also uses this same language in 1 Corinthians 15:23 ἐν τῇ παρουσίᾳ [parousia] αὐτοῦ "at his arrival [parousia]." Each usage of parousia is preceded by an article. This makes it appear that parousia was a technical term, and therefore, these verses are all describing the same event. The rest of 1 Thessalonians 4:15 will be commented on with verse 17.
Here in verse 16 the Greek says αὕτη ἀναστήσονται [anistēmi] πρῶτον [prōtos] which could be translated "will be resurrected [anistēmi] first [prōtos]." The word used in the New Testament for the resurrection is ἀνάστασις (anastasis) and its verbal cognate is anistēmi. Interestingly a simiar phrase is used in Revelation 20:5 ἡ ἀνάστασις [anastasis] ἡ πρώτη [prōtos] translated "the first [prōtos] resurrection [anastasis]." Here instead of using the verbal cognate anistēmi, John uses the noun form anastasis. It is possible that John was using this as double entendre to make the point that not only was this the first resurrection, it was also the same resurrection referred to by Paul. John quotes Jesus using this same terminology, such as John 6:39 ἀναστήσω [anistēmi] αὐτὸ ἐν τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ I will raise them (resurrect them) up on the last day. Similar phrases are also found in John 6:40, 44 & 54. Later in the book of John, Martha realizes that Jesus' use of anistēmi was a reference to the resurrection. John 11:23-25 NASB Matthew 24:30-31 NASBSome say that the rapture and the gathering together are different events. But this can't be so. Pretribulationist Dr. Paul D. Feinberg, in reference to 2 Thessolonians 2, correctly stated, "Paul calls it our gathering to him. He is definitely speaking to Thessolonian Christians who were members of the church. He uses the first person pronoun in 1 Thessolonians 4. Therefore I cannot escape identifying the gathering with the catching up." It is noted that Old Testament saints were not in Christ, and therefore do not take part. However, it was said that the disciples would take part in the rapture on the last day, as well as Lazarus. I moved verse 15 here, to show the parallel with 17.
We meet ἀπάντησιν [apantēsis] the Lord in the air. In addition to here, apantēsis is only used in two other places in the New Testament Acts 28:15 and Matthew 25:6. Interestingly enough, Matthew 25:6 is another reference to the rapture, and proves yet again, Paul was quoting Jesus. Matthew 25:6 NASBMost Bibles have περιλειπόμενοι translated as "remain"? We will see, however, that it really means "survive." I found only two occurrences total in secular Greek literature of "περιλειπόμενοι." Both secular references have the meaning of survival. Note the Greek says οἱ περιλειπόμενοι (that survive) not καὶ περιλειπόμενοι (and survive). καὶ is the Greek word "and." Since καὶ does not precede περιλειπόμενοι in this verse, "and" should not appear there if you are translating this literally. For instance: Josephus, Against Apion 1.35 Polybius. Histories 3.62.10Therefore, the best translations are: 1 Thessalonians 4:15 1 Thessalonians 4:17So why does Paul in verses 15 and 17 write "alive that survive" and not just "alive"? Why the double positive? And what are they surviving from? The only answer that would make sense is if they survived the tribulation, just as Jesus taught! In the Bible, double positives are used to stress a point. Also, note that each time περιλειπόμενοι is preceded by the definite article οἱ. This means that you cannot take part unless you survived something. This also destroys the doctrine of imminence since something most occur first since all those raptured must have first survived some event. That those raptured must first survive is not a new concept. It is echoed in other passages of scripture. Revelation 2:11This was also emphasized by Jesus in the Olivet discourse. This is yet another connection that Paul is making to what Jesus said. Matthew 24:9-10 ESV Matthew 24:13 ESV Matthew 24:22 ESV
Paul exhorts us to comfort others who have lost loved ones. There is hope; this is the same comfort Jesus gave Martha when Lazarus died. John 11:24 NASB
Why did Paul not have to write about the time and seasons? They already knew the time and season since it was a doctrine that was previously taught by Jesus in a way anyone could understand. Here Paul quotes both Matthew and Mark. The phrase Περὶ δὲ occurs only twelve times in the Bible. Matthew 24:35-36 NASB Mark 13:31-32 NASB
Matthew 24:43-44 NASBNote in both Mark 13:31-32 and Matthew 24:35-36, Jesus talks about the Heavens and Earth passing away and then states it occurs at an hour they are not aware of. In Matthew 24:43-44, Jesus said the day would come like a thief. Where else does it say that Jesus would come like a thief? All such references are in an obvious post-trib context. Peter connects both what Paul said and what Jesus said together. When He comes, He will destroy the heavens and the earth, and it will be like a thief. In fact, in 2 Peter 3:15, Peter even states that he is talking about the same exact things Paul spoke of when he says, "just as our beloved brother Paul also wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, as also in all his letters, speaking in them of these things, in which are some things hard to understand, which the untaught and unstable distort, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures, to their own destruction" (NASB). This raises the question, where did Paul state these things if Peter is not referencing 1 Thessalonians 4? 2 Peter 3:10 NASB Matthew 24:29-30 NASBVerse 29 is a description of what occurs immediately before the day of the Lord, the same day that Paul and Peter say that the rapture takes place on. Acts 2:20 NASB (cf. Joel 2:31)Peter said this is the event we are looking for. Titus 2:13 NASB 2 Peter 3:14 NASBIn 2 Peter 3:14 προσδοκῶντες is a "Present Participle." That means that the day Peter was speaking of, the reader of his time was actively looking for, every single day. This is the exact same idea found in Titus 2:13.
Matthew 24:8 NASB
Matthew 24:48-51 NASB
Matthew 24:51 NASB (Ref. all of Matthew 24:48-51 above) Matthew 24:13 NASBPre-tribulationists use 1 Thessalonians 5:9 to prove a pre-trib rapture since it says we are not appointed to wrath. I am writing a separate article on this topic, which will be published soon. FOOTNOTES: 1 CARM Article HOME | ABOUT | ARTICLES: The Timing of the Rapture The Testimony and Parables of Jesus Does apostasia in 2 Thessalonians 2:3 refer to the rapture? The Church Not Found In Revelation The Resurrection 1 Thessalonians 4:13-5:11, New Doctrine or Just a Clarification? Who Escapes What in Revelation 3:10? Imminence Refuted John 14 - In My Fathers House Harpazo the Greek Word for Rapture Behold! I tell you what mystery means The Dead in Christ & Tribulation Saints Andy Woods Revelation is NOT Chronological Is the Holy Spirit the Restrainer? What I believe - Day of the Lord Timeline Understanding Zechariah 14 Blasted Hope or Blessed Hope? Understanding Greek Pronouns and Their Importance The Comfort Given by Paul The Rapture in Revelation 7, Part 1 The Rapture in Revelation 7, Part 2 | |||||||||||||
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